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Divya Prabandhams

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mnms • November 18, 1997 


Dear Members:

I recently heard a remark by someone that set me thinking and I am 
not sure how to respond to it.

The person in question was referring to a situation wherein a 
proposal to chant the divya prabandhams in lieu of veda parayanam in 
a temple.  The person said " How can they do it ?  Divya prabanadhams 
are not equal to the vedas.  Only when the vedas are recited can  
perumal wear the pavitram.  This is a poor substitution"

Now, I was under the distinct impression that our Ubhaya Vedanta 
Tradition upholds both the prabandhams and the vedas as being equal.  
Are their certain exclusions to this rule.  Is this the same in both 
the schools of thought in Sri Vaishnavism  ?

could someone enlighten me and provide me with specific examples - 
for examples by the writings of the acharyas and references to 
specific temple practices.

thank you
mukund srinivasan