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From: Ramakrishnan Balasubramanian (ramakris_at_erols.com)
Date: Thu Jun 17 1999 - 16:40:26 PDT
Venkat Nagarajan <NAGARAVE@fin.gov.on.ca> wrote: > A Dogma on the other hand does not have a rational basis. > I have already discussed examples of dogma in the post > titled "Mutually Exclusive things cannot be equated", please > refer to it. > > 2. Advaita uses logic not known to man!. If it is not known to man, how would advaitins use it? :-). The fact that they use it means that the logic is known, isn't it? Perhaps you meant to say that they use _faulty_ logic. That is certainly possible. > This is not a dogmatic statement! Since there are > staunch advaitans that are members of this group > I do not want to state the reasoning in public; Why not? I am a staunch advaitin myself, but would like to know what vishishhTAdvaitins perceive to be the shortcomings in the ontology, epistemology or soteriology of advaita, and how vishishhTAdvaita makes up the short comings. If your arguments are convincing enough, that would help change my mind. My 2 cents worth: I have been spending some time reading the system of vishishhTAdvaita. The different conclusions that the two schools reach are due some fundamental differences in the methodology they adopt. I am currently in the process of researching/writing an article on the differences between the two systems. No prizes for guessing which I find more acceptable :-). I would be posting that in the advaita list, but I'll mail you a copy. Rama