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Re: The Notion of Krama Mukti

From: Venkat Nagarajan (NAGARAVE_at_fin.gov.on.ca)
Date: Tue Feb 08 2000 - 11:36:52 PST

Dear Sri. Sampath

I think you have not properly understood the contents 
of the post on krama mukti.  The description provided in 
the post is in accordance with the Krama mukti concept 
in advaita (You can search under the string krama mukti 
at the site www.kamakoti.org if you want to 
verify)  The questions I posed are also justified.  
According to the advaitan, the blissful state is common 
to both types of mukta's. Since bliss is by definition infinite, 
it is not possible to claim that their is a variance in bliss 
between one who has attained bliss with respect to 
saguna Brahman and one who has attained bliss with 
respect to nirguna Brahman.   

Given the above: 

1) In what sense is mukti with respect to nirguna Brahman 
superior to mukti with respect to saguna Brahman?  

The advaitan may respond with the following.  
Knowledge of ultimate reality is what makes mukti 
with respect to nirguna Brahman superior. 
Such an answer is acceptable; however, it 
should be noted that, for one who is already in a 
state of bliss (one who has attained mukti with 
respect to saguna Brahman) there is no additional 
benefit derived from such a knowledge (i.e,   
knowledge of nirguna Brahman does 
not serve any purpose in this case.)

Key Point:

Feedom from karma is sufficient (but not necessary) to attain 
a blissful state.  Removal  of avidya also produces a blissful state, 
but removal of avidya is not a necessary condition
for obtaining a blissful state.    

ramanuja dasan,
Venkat

You Wrote:

(1) When one has attained "mukti" one is said (by
definition) to have have attained "liberation" from
all infirmities of mortal existence which includes
"avidya". Is it conceivable that a soul can attain
"mukti" and still labour under "avidya"? Doesn't it
appear to be a contradiction in terms?

dAsan,
Sampathkumaran