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Re: A Question Related to The Notion of Karma Mukti

From: sampath kumar (sampathkumar_2000_at_yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Feb 07 2000 - 05:17:32 PST

Dear Venkat,
You wrote:
> Dear Bhagavatas,
> 1.mukti as related to suguna Brahman or nirguna
> Brahman is real only in an illusory sense; i.e. both
> are impermanent.
> 2. The individual who has attained mukti, with
> respect to suguna Brahman, is in a state of bliss,
> but is still under the influence of avidya. 
> Whereas, the individual who has attained mukti, with
> respect to the nirguna Brahman, is in a state of
> bliss, but is also free from the influence of avidya
> (except for the trace.)   
> Venkat

Pardon what may sound to you as rather naive questions
which adiyen however can't help asking: 

(1) When one has attained "mukti" one is said (by
definition) to have have attained "liberation" from
all infirmities of mortal existence which includes
"avidya". Is it conceivable that a soul can attain
"mukti" and still labour under "avidya"? Doesn't it
appear to be a contradiction in terms?

(2) Secondly, attaining "Brahmam" (the ultimate,
unitive and non-differentiated experience), adiyen has
learnt, is a typically advaitic concept. Making a fine
distinction now, as you have done, between the
experience of "Brahmam" in its "nirguna" state and in
its "suguna" state falls right into the advaitin's
trap. It amounts to trying to "differentiate the
un-differentiated One". Don't you think the advaitin
is likely to turn around and argue that the "suguna
brahman" (the experience of "qualities")is not the
ultimate "Brahman" in his scheme of things since such
a state of "brahmic" experience is less than truly
unitive?

dAsan,
Sampathkumaran


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